As I understand it, if a spell or ability targets Volrath, the shapestealer * and Volraths second ability is used to copy a (legal) target in response, the spell or ability targeting Volrath will no longer effect him because he is no longer a legal target.(Similar to Scion of the Ur-Dragon s ability)
Is this correct?
If so my question is as follows, if Volrath is targeted by a spell and his second ability is used to "fizzle" the spell targeting him and in response another spell is cast targeting Volrath, can volrath use his second ability targeting the same target he targeted in the first instance to "fizzle" the second spell targeting him?
This misunderstanding of the rules seems to stem from a misconception I hade about cards changing names effecting their legality.
Thank you for clearing this up
Hello there,
As I understand it, if a spell or ability targets Volrath, the shapestealer * and Volraths second ability is used to copy a (legal) target in response, the spell or ability targeting Volrath will no longer effect him because he is no longer a legal target.(Similar to Scion of the Ur-Dragon s ability)
Is this correct?
If so my question is as follows, if Volrath is targeted by a spell and his second ability is used to "fizzle" the spell targeting him and in response another spell is cast targeting Volrath, can volrath use his second ability targeting the same target he targeted in the first instance to "fizzle" the second spell targeting him?
Example 1:
Chaos Warp is cast Targeting Volrath, the shapestealer. In response Volrath, the shapestealer s second ability is used to target Triskelion. In response of that Path to Exile is cast targeting Volrath, the shapestealer. In response Volrath, the shapestealer s second ability is used again to target the same Triskelion.
Example 2:
Chaos Warp is cast Targeting Volrath, the shapestealer. In response Volrath, the shapestealer s second ability is used to target himself (Volrath has a counter on it).
Will both these instances make it so that volrath is no longer a legal target for the spells targeting him?
I am looking for the section(s) in the rulings that go over this and or a clear answer as to why it works this way or not.
* Volrath = Volrath, the shapestealer