MTG Salvation

Thanks!

Argh! Reading my subject hurts sorry, it is supposed to be "its" not it's

Fixed. -MadMageQc

Hi All!

1. Player Red plays Goblin Chainwhirler
2. Player Blue Allows it -> it Resolves
3. Goblin Chainwhirler enters and it's ETB Ability goes into the stack
4. Player Blue flashes Agent of Treachery or plays Dominate over the Goblin.
5. It resolves and Goblin Chainwhirler is in the control of Player Blue

The ETB Ability is still in the stack, but will resolve and am I right in assuming that will damage Player blue anyway? (I guess the controller of the ability is Player Red even he/she is not the actual controller of the creature)
And the Goblin Chainwhirler damages itself right?

Let me know if I'm wrong somehow please

Thanks. I figured as much, but wanted to be certain, maybe there was a loophole that made it possible by activating Mangara at the beginning of your upkeep (same time). But ok, clear. It's good to have confirmation, thanks!

If this is not a great reply (worthy of a thanks), I don't know what is.

Hello all!
Let's say I do this in a turn:

1. Activate Mangara of Corondor's Ability (targeting an opponent's Land because I'm evil)
2. In response, I cast Ephemerate on Mangara
3. Ephemerate resolves (Mangara goes and returns untapped)
4. Mangara's Ability resolves (Land is exiled)
5. At this point I retain Mangara, I'm happy and with no questions.

Then at the beginning of my next upkeep
Can I activate Mangara's Ability at the beginning of that upkeep, then choose how to stack both things and have Mangara flicker again with the rebound of Ephemerate?
Or I could only put Mangara on top and lose Mangara? (and wasting the rebound if I don't have any other target)

Hi Rezzagan.
I thought so, but the way you replied then made me think that it wouldn't work with Vona, Butcher of Magan and I thought it could work that way.
In this case my idea was to
1. Attack with Vona.
2. Activate Vona's Ability (let it resolve, whatever)
3. Activate Reconnaissance's 0 ability, 2 times.
4. Let the top 0 ability resolve.
5. Then activate Vona's Ability again (let it resolve)
6. Then the bottom 0 ability resolve to endup with an untapped Vona.

But from what you said, the step 6 wouldn't resolve (it would fizzle)... because Vona WAS a legal target, but by the resolution time it stopped being a legal target. So Vona would end up tapped.
Then I guess the smart thing to do is wait after doing the 4 damage to untap. And activate only once.
I think I understand now. Thanks!

Hi friendly people!
Imagine I have in play Reconnaissance and attack with Mangara of Corondor, it becomes an attacking creature and a valid target for Reconnaissance's 0 ability, I know I can activate the ability, hold priority and activate it again... and again and again.
But can I re-activate Reconnaissance's 0 ability once the creature has been untaped&removed from combat?

I don't think so, if that were possible it would be busted, one could abuse it as follows:
Reconnaissance's 0 ability resolves and untaps Mangara, then I activate Mangara's ability, hold priority and use Reconnaissance's 0 ability again to untap; Then repeat Mangara's ability, so at the end we would have N Mangara's abilities on the stack on Mangara would go taking all permanent's targeted. But I guess Mangara can't be targeted after the first time it's removed from combat. Please confirm, and if possible pitch options to abuse.

Awesome, thanks!

Yes and in case you didn't know PWs come with twice as much as counters so you usually can Ult just after it enters.
Reason being you put those counters to them when they enter, so now you put twice as much.

I say usually because some PW do not have an Ultimate and because there's some which their ultimate is more than double the default starting loyalty.

Hi.
First some questions I think I know the answer.
If I'm casting Altered Ego with X=2, then CMC is 6 right?
If I have Imoti, Celebrant of Bounty in play, it would triggered and my Altered Ego (X=2) would have cascade right?

Now where I'm more confused:
What happens when there's tax or cost reduction?
I think if there's a tax on my spell (let says opponent has Grand Arbiter Augustin IV) then if I pay total 6 for Altered Ego X=1, it wouldn't have cascade would it? CMC there is 5 even if I'm paying 6 right?
So let say there's no tax and I have cost reduction (A Thryx, the Sudden Storm or a Medallion). And I pay 5 for the same Altered Ego, X=2, then it would have cascade?

Yikes, just coming back to this and see it's leaning the other way, well that makes sense. Thanks!

PS: I Like a suggestion from a guy there (Kevin B):
How about a rule "if an effect says to skip a step of a turn, then all of those steps of that turn with that name will be skipped."

Interesting.
Since things lean towards not skipping that additional step... I'll consider that's how it's going to be, but I'm afraid opponents will want to lean towards skipping...
Thanks!

Hi.
Savor the Moment and Sphinx of the Second Sun

Let me know if there's anything incorrect here:

Turn A | First Main: I have the sphinx and cast Savor the moment.
Turn A | Beginning of Second Main, Sphinx triggers:: I untap (plus upkeep and draw)... and let say I tap my stuff.
Extra Turn | I skip my untap step.
Extra Turn | Beginning of Second Main, Sphinx triggers: I untap in this new untap step <-- Here's my main question, do I skip this? why yes or why no?

Thanks!

Ok. So if it says "put" (like the examples above or show and tell) only front face applies.
And if it says "play", I could consider the back side...
For example a) I know Crucible of Worlds could allow me to play Sea Gate, Reborn (land side of Sea Gate Restoration). b) I think back sides are allowed for exiled cards you may play with Commune with Lava...

But what about if it says "casts"?
For example If I Release to the Wind an Esika, God of the Tree, can I cast as any of the sides?
And what if I Release to the Wind the back side "The prismatic bridge"? which side do I see in exile?

Thanks Immortal one!