For instance, if player A decides to play a Chalice, paying 2 to have it come into play with one counter, would the chalice have a CMC of 2 or 0?
The converted mana cost of Chalice of the Void, in play, is 0. X is undefined once Chalice of the Void is in play. Edit: That value was only defined while Chalice of the Void was on the stack. Which, as you've described it, should be 1, giving the Chalice of the Void spell a converted mana cost of 2.
Okay, so just making sure:
In play the Chalice has a CMC of 0 since X is no longer defined.
On the stack, Chalice has a CMC equal to the amount of mana paid?
Correct, mostly at least. The CMC on the stack is always XX which may not be what you paid (if something reduced the amount that you paid, it would not change the CMC).
edit: That is to say the CMC will be twice the value that you chose for X regardless you what you paid.
~Tau
Private Mod Note
():
Rollback Post to RevisionRollBack
To post a comment, please login or register a new account.
For instance, if player A decides to play a Chalice, paying 2 to have it come into play with one counter, would the chalice have a CMC of 2 or 0?
The converted mana cost of Chalice of the Void, in play, is 0. X is undefined once Chalice of the Void is in play. Edit: That value was only defined while Chalice of the Void was on the stack. Which, as you've described it, should be 1, giving the Chalice of the Void spell a converted mana cost of 2.
In play the Chalice has a CMC of 0 since X is no longer defined.
On the stack, Chalice has a CMC equal to the amount of mana paid?
edit: That is to say the CMC will be twice the value that you chose for X regardless you what you paid.
~Tau